62 417
Assignments Done
99,4%
Successfully Done
In June 2018

Answer to Question #17112 in Abstract Algebra for Tsit Lam

Question #17112
Let R, S be rings such that Mm(R) ∼= Mn(S). Does this imply that m = n and R ∼ S?
Expert's answer
The answer is “no”. For instance,for R = M2(Q) and S = M3(Q), we have R is not isomorphic to S (by dimension considerations), but M3(R) ∼= M2(S) since both rings are isomorphic to M6(Q).

Need a fast expert's response?

Submit order

and get a quick answer at the best price

for any assignment or question with DETAILED EXPLANATIONS!

Comments

No comments. Be first!

Leave a comment

Ask Your question

Submit
Privacy policy Terms and Conditions