If two objects have an inelastic collision and one is intitally at rest, is it possible for both of them to be at rest after the smash up? Is it possible for only one of them to be at rest? Why?
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Expert's answer
2010-11-10T02:29:56-0500
If the whole kinetic energy transforming into the potential (heating, for example), it's possible for both of them to be at rest after the smash up. If one object gives the whole momentum to another, it should be at rest.
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