Answer to Question #74429 in Real Analysis for Hasindu

Question #74429
Let {bn} be a sequence such that bn = 1 + (1/n). Prove that inf(bn) = 1
1
Expert's answer
2018-03-16T06:30:08-0400
The answer to the question is available in the PDF file https://www.assignmentexpert.com/https://www.assignmentexpert.com/homework-answers/mathematics-answer-74429.pdf

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