Answer to Question #347915 in Real Analysis for Nikhil

Question #347915

If (an) is convergent then "\\sum_{i=1}^{\\infty} a_n" is also convergent. True or false with the full explanation.


1
Expert's answer
2022-06-10T09:21:20-0400

The sequence "a_n=\\dfrac{1}{n}" converges to "0."

But the harmonic series


"\\displaystyle\\sum_{i=1}^{\\infin}\\dfrac{1}{n}"

is divergent.

This is the counterexample of the statement.

Therefore the statement is False.


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