((xn,yn) is convergent iff both (xn}) and (yn) are convergent. In fact, for(x0 ,y0) in R2, we have (xn ,yn) converging to (x0,y0) iff xn converges to x0 and yn converges to y0
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Expert's answer
2022-04-19T03:35:23-0400
ANSWER
To prove the statement, we use the definitions:
Definition 1 Let {(xn,yn)} is a sequence in R2 . We say that (xn,yn) convergens to (x0,y0) and write (xn,yn)→(x0,y0) if for every ε>0there is an N0∈N such that for all n∈N, if n>N0 , then
∥(xn,yn)−(x0,y0)∥=(xn−x0)2+(yn−y0)2<ε
Definition 2 Let {(xn)} is a sequence in R . We say that (xn) convergens to (x0) and write xn→x0 if for every ε>0there is an Nx∈N such that for all n∈N if n>Nx , then
∣xn−x0∣<ε
1) Let (xn,yn)→(x0,y0) .If ε>0 and n>N0 , such that ∥(xn,yn)−(x0,y0)∥<ε ,then for all n>N0 :
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