62 555
Assignments Done
98,8%
Successfully Done
In June 2018

# Answer to Question #18375 in Real Analysis for Matthew Lind

Question #18375
Using the definition of the limit at infinity verify that
0 does not equal lim x--&gt;infinity cosx.
As we know, for any sequence xnwhich converges to infinity, cos(xn) should converge to 0 if it&#039;s a limit for
cosx. But if we consider the following sequences xn1=pi*n1 and xn2=pi/2+2*pi*n2
we get lim cos(xn1)=1 and lim cos(xn2)=0 1!=0. So 0 does not equal lim cosx
x--&gt;infinity.

Need a fast expert's response?

Submit order

and get a quick answer at the best price

for any assignment or question with DETAILED EXPLANATIONS!