Answer to Question #106724 in Economics for Luna Penn

Question

Basing your answer on the work of Kopczuk, Saez, and Song, how has the earnings inequality of men change since World War II (note that the different trends in different time periods)? Since the 1970’s how did the trends in earnings inequality differ for men in the top half of the distribution and the bottom half of the distribution?

Answer 1

The earnings inequality of men decreased since World War II and increased since the 1970’s because of development of technology, trade and dofferent institutions.