Answer to Question #136082 in Philosophy for Ana

Question #136082
Does Locke consider children to be the property of their parents? Why or why not?
1
Expert's answer
2020-10-06T12:59:14-0400


According to Locke, each individual owns his her body and the labor they do. When a person adds his/her labor to an object, it becomes his/her property. Therefore, Locke considers children to be the property of their parents because childcare is labor by the parents on an object (children).


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