Answer to Question #114074 in Philosophy for P

Question

Descartes argues that because he thinks, (he wonders, he has conscious experience) he must exist as a thinking self. Hume answers that Descartes is not even entitled to this. Why is the existence of the self not in question? In other words, Hume argues that to say that there is such a thing as the “self” we must have an impression of it. But when we introspect, we find a multitude of thoughts, feelings, sensations, and more, but not a discernible “self” that we can point to. It is logically possible, Hume suggests, that instead of selves in the world there might be bundles of perceptions, i.e., a concentration of mental experiences without any specific essence. Do you agree with Hume? Explain. Moreover, how do you think Descartes would respond to Hume’s suggestion?

Answer 1

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