Answer to Question #72310 in Microeconomics for mbee
Can you check if my answer is correct?
Why do you think there is such as a difference in the percentage of monthly income spent on rail travel in the UK compared with other European counties mentioned in the article?
In the UK, the British rail is privatised. Rail services in the UK have been provided by private companies. Therefore, giving them the right operate services being costly. However, in Europe, the rail service is a publicly owned system, which is cheaper.
There is no real competition in the UK rail system, commuters around the UK rely on trains to go to work. They can’t commute with alternative rail provider.
Dear mbee, your question requires a lot of work, which neither of our experts is ready to perform for free. We advise you to convert it to a fully qualified order and we will try to help you. Please click the link below to proceed: Submit order