Answer to Question #99868 in Statistics and Probability for Josephat

Question #99868
. In a binomial distribution consisting of 5 independent trials, the probability of 1 and 2 successes are 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Calculate the mean, variance and mode of the distribution.
1
Expert's answer
2019-12-04T09:36:25-0500

Probability mass function for binomial distribution

For we have:

, .

For :

.

Since is an integer,

then the mean and mode coincide and equal .

Variance .

Answer: mean = mode =1, variance = 4/5.



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